Hi, Nice question! " In the example " She hates speaking in public " we could argue that the clause " speaking in public " is a direct object of the verb " hate ," but in your sentence, " to do it " is an action rather than a thing. I would say that " persuade " is a causative verb , not a ditransitive verb.
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AnonymousIs "persuaded" ditransitiveNo. persuade is a catenative verb. It takes an infinitive with an intervening NP (noun phrase).
AnonymousIs "to do it" a direct object of "persuaded"?No. It's a complement clause in the catenative construction.
AnonymousPS: that's from Wikipedia (under VALENCY entry):"Sam persuaded us to contribute to the cause. - Object is a non-finite verb phrase".That's one way of looking at it. I'd say complement rather than object. You know, if you ask 10 grammarians to analyze a sentence, you'll get 18 opinions on which analysis is right!
AnonymousPS: that's from Wikipedia (under VALENCY entry): "Sam persuaded us to contribute to the cause. - Object is a non-finite verb phrase".To me it seems weird to call "to contribute to the cause" an "object" of the verb.
CalifJimThat's one way of looking at it. I'd say complement rather than object. You know, if you ask 10 grammarians to analyze a sentence, you'll get 18 opinions on which analysis is right!Indeed, there are different ways of parsing as there are different schools of grammar.