Yes, that's correct. The first meaning is not a very likely thing to want to say, but this is purely because of the choice of "hurt her feelings" as an example. There is no problem with "could have" having this meaning.
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
AnonymousDoes "could have..." imply differently between these 2 sentences?We could have hurt her feelings. (but we didn't; imaginary past situation)We could have hurt her feelings. (It's possible that we have hurt her feelings)Thank you.Yes. could have can mean either of those.
Mr WordyThe first meaning is not a very likely thing to want to say, but this is purely because of the choice of "hurt her feelings" as an example.Clarification: here I was assuming that you meant you could have deliberately hurt her feelings but chose not to. If you mean you could have accidentally hurt her feelings but fortuitously didn't, then it's