Difference when a noun is modified by past participle / to infinitive verb
Could you look at these two sentences and tell the difference between them? Or are they all the same?
(First of all, these two look grammatically correct to me... but if not, please tell me. )
1. when an individual perceived to be perfect makes a mistake, ....
2. when an individual to be perceived perfect makes a mistake, ...
Top answer
hohok look at these two sentences You don't have sentences there. You have subordinate clauses, and the main clause is missing. hohok 1.
- hohok look at these two sentences You don't have sentences there.
- You have subordinate clauses, and the main clause is missing.
- hohok 1.
- W hen an individual perceived to be perfect makes a mistake, ....
- This is the only correct one (as shown).
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hohoklook at these two sentences
You don't have sentences there. You have subordinate clauses, and the main clause is missing.
hohok1. When an individual perceived to be perfect makes a mistake, ....
This is the only correct one (as shown). You can't move 'to be' to a di
01. This is okay. For example: "When an individual perceived to be perfect makes a mistake, everyone is shocked [because he's supposed to be perfect, and perfect people don't make mistakes]."
2. This is ungrammatical. The following, for example, would be okay:
"For an individual to be perceived as perfect, he can't make any mistakes."
"If an individual wants t
0
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