Difference between 'we have both' and 'we have both'
What is the difference between:
We have both paid it.
We both have paid it.
Both of us have paid it.
Thank you.
Top answer
The main difference is that idiomatically we prefer to put both immediately before the actual verb it "modifies" ( noticed , in this case, not the auxiliary have ). I can't think of any obvious reason why one would go against this preference by putting it before the auxiliary, but native speakers will normally assume there must be some reason for any such deviation (by a competent speaker). Perhaps most of us might hazard a guess that the intention was to place more emphasis the fact of it being both .
- The main difference is that idiomatically we prefer to put both immediately before the actual verb it "modifies" ( noticed , in this case, not the auxiliary have ).
- I can't think of any obvious reason why one would go against this preference by putting it before the auxiliary, but native speakers will normally assume there must be some reason for any such deviation (by a competent speaker).
- Perhaps most of us might hazard a guess that the intention was to place more emphasis the fact of it being both .
- But it's not an "established" usage with a known significance.
- php
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The main difference is that idiomatically we prefer to put both immediately before the actual verb it "modifies" (noticed, in this case, not the auxiliary have). I can't think of any obvious reason why one would go against this preference by putting it before the auxiliary, but native speakers will normally assume there must be some reason for any such deviation (by
0apple fold 635What is the difference between:
We have both paid it.
We both have paid it.
Both of us have paid it.
Thank you.
There is no difference.
CJ
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