Difference between the prepositions meaning here?

Question

Sentence: In comparison to the last time. Or. In comparison of the last time.Question: Usually both prepositions of and to are used with the word comparison. Usage of both is considered as correct. My question here is: Which preposition in the above sentence is correct to use? If both are then what is the difference between their meanings.Thanks

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

AnonymousWhich preposition in the above sentence is correct to use?

You have not given us a sentence, but in sentences I might imagine that contain that phrase, the preposition "to" would be used.

Anonymous · Answer

AlpheccaStars AnonymousWhich preposition in the above sentence is correct to use?You have not given us a sentence, but in sentences I might imagine that contain that phrase, the preposition "to" would be used.

Sorry if that was incomplete

. Let's say: He won the race with a better margin in comparisonof/to the last time.

Which preposition would be correct to use there now and why?

Thanks

AlpheccaStars · Answer

The prepositions you can use are these:

He won the race with a better margin in comparison with/to the last time.

Why? Because those are the ones native speakers use.

Anonymous · Answer

AlpheccaStarsThe prepositions you can use are these:He won the race with a better margin in comparison with/to the last time.Why? Because those are the ones native speakers use.

So univocally speaking, use of preposition of there would not be wrong but it would be a non-native way of saying it. Correct?

AlpheccaStars · Answer

AnonymousSo univocally speaking, use of preposition of there would not be wrong but it would be a non-native way of saying it. Correct?

It depends on how you define "wrong."

Anonymous · Answer

AlpheccaStars It depends on how you define "wrong."

Wrong from natives point of view and not from non-natives point of view. Is that what you mean by wrong?

Basically, I just want to know whether it would be grammatically correct to use the preposition of there or not, what difference will it make in the meaning. Many rules in English are flexible, hence this continuous questions.

Thanks

Anonymous · Answer

AnonymousWrong from natives point of view and not from non-natives point of view. Is that what you mean by wrong? Basically, I just want to know whether it would be grammatically correct to use the preposition of there or not, what difference will it make in the meaning. Many rules in English are flexible, hence this continuous questions. Thanks

No reply to this post? Is the anonymous understanding correct?

AlpheccaStars · Answer

Anonymous Is that what you mean by wrong?

It is a very philosophical question.
To me (and I dare to speak for many mainstream teachers), the "correct" grammar and semantics of a language are defined by that segment of native speakers who are considered the most educated and literate of the entire population.
If a particular speech pattern does not conform to that pattern, then it would be deemed "substandard" or "dialectical" if it conforms to a common speech pattern of a different population of native speakers. That pattern may have its own unique grammar. An example is African American Vernacular. Professional writers may use these patterns in their novels to add character and color. Charles Dickens did so deliberately.
If a speech pattern does not conform to any of these, then it could be called "wrong". I am hesitant to associate the label "wrong" if the pattern is understandable, but not standard. Many non-native speakers have their own unique way of expression. They are intelligible to native speakers, but they are immediately recognized as foreign. Whether you call that "wrong" is up to you.

Anonymous · Answer

AlpheccaStarsIt is a very philosophical question.To me (and I dare to speak for many mainstream teachers), the "correct" grammar and semantics of a language are defined by that segment of native speakers who are considered the most educated and literate of the entire population. If a particular speech pattern does not conform to that pattern, then it would be deemed "substandard" or "dialectical" if it conforms to a common speech pattern of a different population of native speakers. That pattern may have its own unique grammar. An example is African American Vernacular. Professional writers may use these patterns in their novels to add character and color. Charles Dickens did so deliberately.If a speech pattern does not conform to any of these, then it could be called "wrong". I am hesitant to associate the label "wrong" if the pattern is understandable, but not standard. Many non-native speakers have their own unique way of expression. They are intelligible to native speakers, but they are immediately recognized as foreign. Whether you call that "wrong" is up to you.

Thanks for the response. I actually pursued this because Google book result showed that the use of that preposition with that phrase was and is used commonly by too many educated and literate section of native speakers. They may have used it in a different context, but they used it. https://www.google.com/#q=%22in+comparison+of+the%22&tbm=bks

Grammarfreak · Answer

Pardon me for butting in with my two cents.

Anonymous. Let's say: He won the race with a better margin in comparison of/to the last time.

The natural way to say this would be: He won the race by a wide margin compared to the last time. Better margin is not an idiomatic phrase in this context.

Difference between the prepositions meaning here?

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