0No, Shiite can also be used as noun according to Merriam Webster's Dictionary. But Shia is always a noun. The following definitions are from MW's Dictionary.02br 02br 01b00Shiite02b00 01font00(01i00noun02i00): a Muslim of the Shia branch of Islam.02font02br 02br 01font
1b00Person A asks Person B:02b00 Which branch of Islam do you belong to?02br 02br 01b00Person B replies:02b00 I belong to Shia branch.02br 02br 01b00Person A:02b00 Well, you are shiite (here I don't think person A can say 01i00well, you are Shia02i00 because from preceding disc
Being of Arab/Shia background I can tell you with confidence that there is no difference between Shia and Shi'ite. The linguistic difference is attributed to the language of origin. In Arabic, there is a silent 't' at the end of the word 'shia' which has been corrupted as a pronounceable t by non-Arabs such as Persians (who are mostly shias). In Arabic the silent 't' is only pronounceable whe
0 Do I understand you correctly that Iranian's call themselves Shi'ites (pronounce the "silent" t) while Arabs would call them Shia? Or is it just some Iranian's who "mispronounce" the word? I recently heard an interview with an Arab reporter who expressed outrage at the Western use of the word Shi'ite, and since then I have noticed that most Muslim politicians and reporters seem to use the wo