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Vushcm Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Difference between "much" and "a lot of"

Hello,

A friend of mine told me that - according to many British grammar books - for an uncountable noun in a negative sentence, 'much' should be used instead of 'a lot of'. But I have seen both used interchangeably. Could you please shed some light?

In fact, I tried using Google search engine with 'site:nytimes.com "I don't have a lot of time"' vs. 'site:nytimes.com "I don't have much time"'; the result was bias toward the former:

"I don't have a lot of time" - > 36,000 hits
"I don't have much time" - ~ 3,000 hits

Thanks,
VUSHCM
  

Top answer

I see nothing wrong with I don't have a lot of time. CB

  • I see nothing wrong with I don't have a lot of time.
  • CB
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2 Answers
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I see nothing wrong with I don't have a lot of time.

CB
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There is indeed some conflict between what prescriptive grammars tell us and what you'll actually encounter in text and speech concerning the 'correct' use of the quantity determiners 'much' and 'a lot of'. Logically, if we loosely define 'much' as meaning 'a lot of' (when used with non-count nouns), then there's no reason why they shouldn't be freely interchangeable, at least grammatically speak

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