Difference between I am done and I have finished

Question

I dont know if one of these have a polite or unpolite sense. Can you help me.

Regards · Accepted Answer

AnonymousI don't know if one of these has a polite or impolite sense. Can you help me?

Hi,

No difference intended. I presume 'I have finished' is less informal than 'I'm done'.

Regards

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you.

Would it be correct to switch the verbs in the original sentences, as follows:

Again, any difference in meaning?

I am finished.

I have done.

Regards · Answer

Hi,

The original sentences

1) I have finished (intransitive verb).

For example: I have finished (doing something, e.g. my homework). I'm going to meet Kelly now.

2) I am done (adjective).

For example: Jason: Hurry up. Tom: OK. I'm done (e.g. I'm ready to go).

The new ones

3) I have done (intransitive verb) - I have finished my tasks (this form is less common; the commoner form

is when do is a transitive verb).

For example: You should wait for her until she's done.

4) I am finished (adjective) - I'm no longer doing something. I'm available now.

For example: I'm finished. I can now talk with you.

They do have similar meanings, but they might be said in different situations.

Regards

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you, Regards, for your explanation. I just have some questions below to confirm my understanding.

Regards3) I have done (intransitive verb) - I have finished my tasks (this form is less common; the commoner form
is when do is a transitive verb).
For example: You should wait for her until she's done.

Do you mean saying "I have done." alone, without a direct object since it is an intranstive verb, is correct and sometimes used although this form is less common?

Is the contraction in your example above, "she has done" or "she is done"? I would usually interpret it as "she isdone" because this is the more common. However, we are talking about "I have done" as an intranstive verb, not as an adjective. This is just to clarify. Thank you.

Regards · Answer

Hi,

AnonymousDo you mean saying "I have done." alone, without a direct object since it is an intranstive verb, is correct and sometimes used although this form is less common?

Yes, we would probably say 'I've done my hair or 'I have done the dishes'. Do is mainly a transitive verb

and less used as an intransitive verb. It's used as an intransitive verb in a question like 'How are you doing?'

when the answer would be 'I am doing good'.

AnonymousIs the contraction in your example above, "she has done" or "she is done"? I would usually interpret it as "she is done" because this is the more common. However, we are talking about "I have done" as an intranstive verb, not as an adjective.

You should wait for her until she has done (e.g. she has completed her tasks). That's why I said this sense is

less likely to be used.

Regards

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you, Regards, for all the clarification. This is more than clear to me now.

I hope you don't mind, but can you share your thoughts on this, please, especially in my last post?

Anonymous · Answer

According to my elementary school instruction, use of the word done was to be used in relation to the condition of food being cooked; i.e., is the rump roast done.  If you were referring to a task being performed by a person, it was proper to say I am finished or I have completed washing the dishes.  Now, because teachers are no longer teaching the distinction between the two usages, many people use "done" to refer to completion  of any task.  Those who were taught the differences in usage will often reply when asked if they are done--just stick a fork in me to see.

Anonymous · Answer

In English, one would never say, correctly, "I am doing good". "Good" in an adjective that modifies a noun. The correct word in this case is "well'.

I am doing well.

If you are doing "good" you are doing something noble - doing good works.

Anonymous · Answer

polite and impolite you mean? both of them are polite.

Difference between I am done and I have finished

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