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Veerendraa Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Difference between "have been finished" and "to have been finished"

Dear Forum friends,

Please clarify my doubts since it has been perplexing me a lot. Kindly give an early reply to this query.

Thanks & Regards,

Veerendraa
  

Top answer

The second is an infinite verb form-- the perfect infinitive --, and the first is a finite verb form, the 1st and 2nd person singular, and the 1st, 2nd and 3rd person plural of the present perfect simple.

— Mister Micawber

  • The second is an infinite verb form-- the perfect infinitive --, and the first is a finite verb form, the 1st and 2nd person singular, and the 1st, 2nd and 3rd person plural of the present perfect simple.
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1 Answers
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The second is an infinite verb form-- the perfect infinitive --, and the first is a finite verb form, the 1st and 2nd person singular, and the 1st, 2nd and 3rd person plural of the present perfect simple.
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