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Roky0071 Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Difference between “be used to” and "be used for''?

Say, I have a marker in my hand. somebody asks me why I have the marker in my hand. In reply, I say the following sentences

1. This marker is used to write things with.

2. This marker is used for writing.

Now my questions are as follows:

a. what is the subtle difference in meaning between the two examples above? as I know they both express purpose.

b. when/in which situations can I use the two examples above?

  

Top answer

The main difference I notice is that (1) seems more awkward. Neither seems a completely satisfactory answer to the question of why you have it in your hand.

  • The main difference I notice is that (1) seems more awkward.
  • Neither seems a completely satisfactory answer to the question of why you have it in your hand.
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2 Answers
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The main difference I notice is that (1) seems more awkward. Neither seems a completely satisfactory answer to the question of why you have it in your hand.

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roky0071why I have the marker in my hand.

I just found this marker on the ground and picked it up.
I am prepared to give you a temporary tattoo. I charge 5 Rs for a simple one, and up to 25 Rs. for an elaborate one. What design are you interested in?
I am getting ready to write the opening paragraph of my great novel.

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