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Guzhao67 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Difference between "be" and "being" after infinitive to

hi: I read the following sentence from The Turn of the Screwby Henry James:

"Oh, I've no pretension," I could laugh, "to being the only one. ..."

my question is: according to rules, we use base forms of verb after the infinitive TO, so, is that kind of expression NOT ungrammatical? And what's the difference between "... to be the only one" and "... to being the only one"?

thank you.
  

Top answer

guzhao67 hi: I read the following sentence from The Turn of the Screwby Henry James: "Oh, I've no pretension," I could laugh, "to being the only one. " my question is: according to rules, we use base forms of verb after the infinitive TO, so, is that kind of expression NOT ungrammatical? And what's the difference between "...

— Anonymous

  • guzhao67 hi: I read the following sentence from The Turn of the Screwby Henry James: "Oh, I've no pretension," I could laugh, "to being the only one.
  • " my question is: according to rules, we use base forms of verb after the infinitive TO, so, is that kind of expression NOT ungrammatical?
  • And what's the difference between "...
  • to be the only one" and "...
  • to being the only one"?
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1 Answers
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guzhao67hi: I read the following sentence from The Turn of the Screwby Henry James:

"Oh, I've no pretension," I could laugh, "to being the only one. ..."

my question is: according to rules, we use base forms of verb after the infinitive TO, so, is that kind of expression NOT ungrammatical? And what's the difference between "... to be the only one" and ".
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