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Moon7296 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
definite article the
In the medieval times, most of the peasants belonged to the land the king bestowed, or to land owned by a nobleman.
Q) The reason why "the" exists before the first "land" is that it is modified by the specific "king", and the reason why there is no definite article the in front of the second the is that it is motified by not specified nobleman but just A nobleman. Am I correctly interpreting the point?
Q) The reason why "the" exists before the first "land" is that it is modified by the specific "king", and the reason why there is no definite article the in front of the second the is that it is motified by not specified nobleman but just A nobleman. Am I correctly interpreting the point?
Top answer
Probably, yes. However, there is not a strong compulsion to do it the way it is written. The article problem is actually at the beginning.
- Probably, yes.
- However, there is not a strong compulsion to do it the way it is written.
- The article problem is actually at the beginning.
- It should be "In medieval times" not "In the medieval times".
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1 Answers
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Probably, yes. However, there is not a strong compulsion to do it the way it is written.
The article problem is actually at the beginning. It should be "In medieval times" not "In the medieval times".
The article problem is actually at the beginning. It should be "In medieval times" not "In the medieval times".
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