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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Definite article
Hi. I got this sentence from page 20 of Chapter 2, "The Possibility and Divisions of Theology," of the book titled "Lectures in Systematic Theology" by Henry C. Thiessen, which is revised by Vernon D. Doerksen.
It embraces biblical history, church history, history of missions, history of doctrine, and the history of creeds and confessions.
My question is why is there the definite article "the" before the phrase "history of creeds" when there is no definite article before the phrase "history of missions" and "history of doctrine"? It looks to me that the three are alike in structure and function in the sentence. Thank you in advance for your help.
It embraces biblical history, church history, history of missions, history of doctrine, and the history of creeds and confessions.
My question is why is there the definite article "the" before the phrase "history of creeds" when there is no definite article before the phrase "history of missions" and "history of doctrine"? It looks to me that the three are alike in structure and function in the sentence. Thank you in advance for your help.
Top answer
Anonymous My question is why is there the definite article "the" before the phrase "history of creeds" when there is no definite article before the phrase "history of missions" and "history of doctrine"? It is the writer's style: for variety's sake.
- Anonymous My question is why is there the definite article "the" before the phrase "history of creeds" when there is no definite article before the phrase "history of missions" and "history of doctrine"?
- It is the writer's style: for variety's sake.
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1 Answers
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AnonymousMy question is why is there the definite article "the" before the phrase "history of creeds" when there is no definite article before the phrase "history of missions" and "history of doctrine"?It is the writer's style: for variety's sake.
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