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Question

Are these all grammatically fine? If so, do they have the same meaning?·He died three years ago.·He has been dead for three years.·He is three years dead.

Clive · Accepted Answer

Hi Taka,

Are these all grammatically fine? Yes.

If so, do they have the same meaning?

You could say that the underlying meaning, the basic fact , is the same. ie he/dead/3 years.

But here are a few comments.

·He died three years ago. Sounds like you want to tell me a fact about the past, and focus on the past rather than the present.

·He has been dead for three years. Sounds like the fact has some relevance to the present situation.

eg He has been dead for 3 years, but he still gets these letters from the bank every month.

Having pointed out the above nuances, I want to add that very often the two tenses above are interchanged with no real intended differnce in meaning.

He is three years dead. This is an old-fashioned, almost archaic way of speaking. Or poetical/literary.

Clive

Taka · Answer

I'm especially interested in the last example now. Here is what I've found.

A warden reported coming across a herd with a female carrying a small calf several days dead.

Does the part in bold sound old-fashioned, almost archaic to your ear?

Mister Micawber · Answer

Not to my ears in that context, no.

Taka · Answer

But the one in the first post does, MM?

Mister Micawber · Answer

I need more context.  As it stands, literary probably; archaic, no.

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