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S_s_sridhar Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

Counter part

Hi All,

Which is correct,

Thomas counter part

or

Thomas's counter part

Thanks
SRI
  

Top answer

'Thomas's counterpart' and it is just one word. If you have inadvertantly omitted an apostrophe in the first example-- there has been many a discussion on apostrophes, but my understanding is that the apostrophe-without-the-'s' should be reserved for certain classic personalities like Jesus' and Socrates', and for the cases where pronunciation warrants it. z/ and the addition of 's reflects that.

— Mister Micawber

  • 'Thomas's counterpart' and it is just one word.
  • If you have inadvertantly omitted an apostrophe in the first example-- there has been many a discussion on apostrophes, but my understanding is that the apostrophe-without-the-'s' should be reserved for certain classic personalities like Jesus' and Socrates', and for the cases where pronunciation warrants it.
  • z/ and the addition of 's reflects that.
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4 Answers
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'Thomas's counterpart' and it is just one word. If you have inadvertantly omitted an apostrophe in the first example-- there has been many a discussion on apostrophes, but my understanding is that the apostrophe-without-the-'s' should be reserved for certain classic personalities like Jesus' and Socrates', and for the cases where pronunciation warrants it. Here is would be pronounced /ta:m?s?z/
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Does that mean that or (in the genitive) are pronounced just like and in the nominative? I was once told (NOT by a native speaker of English) that even when the 's' is not added in writing, it is still pronounced.
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I was told the same (- even if the actual really 'correct' genitive of Jesus is "Jesu").
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According to Swan (Practical English Usage):

'The apostrophe in a word like parents' does not change the pronunciation at all [/peir?ntz/], But with singular classical (ancient Greek and Roman) names ending in s', we sometimes pronounce a possessive 's even when it is not written: Oedipus' = /i:dip?s(iz)/.
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