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Fluent Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Could you please, help me?

I'm suffering from misunderstanding these tenses when they are preceded by a modal verb.

have done something.
had done somthing.
If the above sentences were preceded by: could/ would/may..etc

Thanks in advance
  

Top answer

Hi fluent. Thanks for joining us. Welcome to English Forums.

  • Hi fluent.
  • Thanks for joining us.
  • Welcome to English Forums.
  • Your question is quite broad.
  • I'm thinking we can eliminate part of it, as I don't believe we use the modals you mention with the past perfect.
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4 Answers
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Hi fluent. Thanks for joining us. Welcome to English Forums.

Your question is quite broad. I'm thinking we can eliminate part of it, as I don't believe we use the modals you mention with the past perfect. "She may had done something."

Assuming you're comfortable with the simple present, the present perfect differs only in that the action has been completed at the present tim
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thank you very much I appreciate your interest.
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Welcome to English Forums!
fluent'm suffering from misunderstanding these tenses when they are preceded by a modal verb.
Your terminology is wrong. Tenses are not preceded by modal verbs.

You have non-modal tenses, such as Present, Past, Present Perfect, etc. These do not contain any modal verbs, though they may contain auxiliaries like has
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fluenthave done something.
had done somthing.
If the above sentences were preceded by: could/ would/may..etc
I'm afraid I have to tell you that had done following a defective auxiliary (can, could; will, would; may, might; shall, should; must; ought) is always an incorrect collocation. Only an infinitive can follow a defective/modal a

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