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Lucas21c Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Could you help me?

Could you tell me whether the following sentences sound natural and right?

A1. A definite plan is necessary for you to make your business successful.
A2. A high school diploma is needed for you to qualify for the job.

B1. His father forced him that he should be a lawyer.
B2. His fatehr forced him to be a lawyer.

C1. To have the same condition, I could do better.
C2. For me to have the same condition, a better result could come out.
  

Top answer

A1. A definite plan is necessary to make your business successful. A2.

  • A1.
  • A definite plan is necessary to make your business successful.
  • A2.
  • A high school diploma is needed to qualify for the job.
  • B1.
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13 Answers
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A1. A definite plan is necessary to make your business successful.
A2. A high school diploma is needed to qualify for the job.
B1. His father forced him to be a lawyer.
B2. His father forced him to be a lawyer.

Your C sentences do not make sense to me. Please explain them or try again.
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C means "If I am under the same condition, I could do better."
I attempted to express that by using 'to-infinitive.'
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lucas21cunder the same condition
What does that part mean?
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If I have the same conditions (as you), I could do better.
So, the underlined part means "If I have enough money, talents, or favorable circumstances like you, I could do much better."
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Then those sentences for C cannot be used, Lucas. This is the closest I can come to some of the words you used:

C1. If I had the same advantages, I could do better.
C2. For a better result, I would need the same advantages.
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Do "If I am under the same conditions as you" or "If I have the same conditions as you" sound awkward?
Or, my usage of to-infinitive sounds awkward?
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It is both the vocabulary (which is non-native—as you are aware, I had to ask you the meaning) and the grammar (which is not possible).
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Thank you very much for your help and detailed explanation.
By the way, I know I can change "If I had gone to the concert with her, I would have been glad." into "To go to the concert with her, I would have been glad."
If so, is "To have the same advantages, I could do better." right in both the vocabulary and the grammar?
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lucas21cBy the way, I know I can change "If I had gone to the concert with her, I would have been glad." into "To go to the concert with her, I would have been glad."
No, you cannot do that at all!
You can invert the clauses, but it has a different meaning:

I would have been glad to go to the concert with her = I did not go to the concert w
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"If I had gone to the concert with her" also implies "I did not go to the concert with her."
Also, I didn't invert the sentence, but change the subjunctive clause form(If I had gone to the concert with her) into to-infinitive form(to go to the concert with her).
Could you tell me why you think "to go to the concert with her" has a different meaning from "If I had gone to the concert with h

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