Hello..,
In the below, the underlined part seems to be referring to the present, not to the past.
Then, logically, it should be "couldn't be happier".
How can we justify the "couldn't have been happier"?
Maybe....
The "have been" was combined with "could"?
If it was a simple past "was", then it should be couldn't be happier, but it was "have been" combined with could, so, "could have been" is used here? Specially because it is not a one time verb, but continous verb be?
And also, because the meaning and time span of "have been" will be lost if it is "could be happier"?
In other words, couldn't be happier refers to a specific time point, whereas couldn't have been happier refers to a period of time?
Or... Just simply....
could have pp can refer to the past, present and future?
I was wondering what the native's sense might be here...
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The zones of poverty seemed just a part of the crowded city, always there, unchanging. With a little girl dreaming for a better future, however, the seeds of hope began to grow in the slums. "I'm the only breadwinner in my family. I couldn't have been happier now that I've learned to drive a rickshaw. I am hopeful that it will double my income and help my children's studies," said a 33-year-old woman.
That is just a mistake, and that is not the only one. You don't dream for a future. You dream of one.
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That is just a mistake, and that is not the only one. You don't dream for a future. You dream of one. "With" is suspect, too. The writer sounds non-native, and the 33-year-old woman who couldn't have been happier probably is, too.
More context of this passage is at https://www.englishforums.com/English/ParagraphsWrittenNative/bxdpqd/post.htm
pructusI was wondering what the native's sense might be here.
It doesn't sound right to me as written. I see two versions that are possible, but not that one.
I couldn't be happier now that I've learned to drive a rickshaw.
I couldn't have been happier when I (finally) learned to drive a rickshaw.