correct?

I have a property overseas that is on the market.
I have a property overseas that is for sale.
(on the market = on the sale. No need to use both in the same sentence.)
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I am deeply worried by the rejection of the bailout plan by the House.
I am deeply worried now that the House has rejected the bailout plan.
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I believe the turmoil is basically

Dear CJ

That is my thought what is going on the global economy crisis that is affected to every one.

By the way,

I have a property overseas that is for sale.

Can I say,'" I have a property overseas that is for selling."?

Thank again in advance.

I think CJ already gave you his answer.
Can I say,'" I have a property overseas that is for selling."? Gramamtically, it's not wrong. But
it doesn't sound fluent to most native ears.

I have an oversea property for sale -means "I have a property overseas that is for selling"

In this context, gerund (selling) does not work quite smoothly as "sale" does.

as a native speaker, in most cases it would be inappropriate to say " i have a property overseas that is for selling". Although maybe it works gramatically, no one would ever use that in ordinary speech or even in formal speech; it sounds wrong.

mboutiThat is my thought what is going on the global economy crisis that is affected to every one.

Then say
What is going on in the global economy is affecting everyone.
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In English we don't say that something is for selling. We say that it is for sale.
CJ