Contraction of 'have'/'has'

Question

Hi everybody,It is a really easy question. Are 'have' and 'has' normally shortened if we use it to express POSSESSION? Now I refer only to the cases WITHOUT 'got'.For example: I've two cats.Personally I think it is not used in this particular case but to be honest I haven't dealt with it much so far.As I can see dictionaries don't use contraction in this case. I checked some grammar books and they don't emphasise it. Instead they write simply something like: " 've = have, 's = has ". That doesn't solve my problem (because it doesn't define the possible uses).Thanks for your help in advance.

Khoff · Accepted Answer

Hole One a New SeeAre 'have' and 'has' normally shortened if we use it to express POSSESSION? Now I refer only to the cases WITHOUT 'got'.For example: I've two cats.

In American English, I would say no, it would be pretty unusual. We would either say "I've got two cats" or "I have two cats." (I do, in fact!) It sounds like it might be British, though.

Hole One a New See · Answer

Thank you

I'm still curious about the UK case.

Anonymous · Answer

Hole One a New SeeThank you I'm still curious about the UK case.

I.ve found this in the cyberspace:

"I've two words for you all." (metro.co.uk)

"I've two top-five finishes at the Open already in my career and during a week off earlier in the year, I enjoyed a cheeky round at Royal Lytham, shooting a 65." (thisisbristol.co.uk)

CalifJim · Answer

Hole One a New SeeAre 'have' and 'has' normally shortened if we use it to express POSSESSION?

Possession is the main meaning of 'have', but not the only meaning, so I'm not sure what "possession" specifically has to do with it.

I think you're asking about contracting I have to I've when 'have' is the main (stative) verb, as in I've two cats or I've plenty of time. (Note that the latter doesn't express possession; nobody owns time.) The contraction is rare with the dynamic meaning of have, as in We've a walk every day (which should be We have a walk every day).

As already noted, this is much more common in British English. Americans rarely use that form. I vaguely remember reading somewhere that it is increasingly less common in BrE as well, but wait for a native speaker of BrE to confirm or deny that.

CJ

Hole One a New See · Answer

Thank you, CalifJim

Yes, I should have written as you did in your second paragraph. Some questions (because I'm little bit confused):

The contraction is rare with the dynamic meaning of have

1. Is it true for both UK and US English?

2. Is it true for the stative meaning? (e.g. in US English)

Americans rarely use that form.

3. It refers to the case when 'have' is the main verb (BOTH stative and dynamic), isn't it?

I really got lost a little bit in sentences

Thanks for your help in advance.

CalifJim · Answer

My understanding of it is this:

American usage virtually never uses the contraction (I've, we've, etc.) when 'have' is the main verb. This is true whether 'have' is used with stative or dynamic meaning.

British usage uses the uncontracted form, but it also makes use of the contraction (optionally) when 'have' (in its stative meaning) is the main verb. The contracted forms are not used when 'have' has a dynamic meaning.

Stative 'have'
I have a dog. BrE and AmE
I've a dog. BrE, not AmE <<< the only difference between the two varieties

Dynamic 'have'
I have a party at my home every weekend. BrE and AmE
I've a party at my home every weekend. Not BrE, and not AmE.

Warning: This is only what I have read. I don't speak BrE.

CJ

Hole One a New See · Answer

Thank you, CalifJim.

Everything is clear now (even for me)

Zod · Answer

Fantastic, just what I was looking for!
I've been wondering about how correct is it to contract "have" when it is the main verb but my question is slightly different perhaps, say:

a student asks you in class is it ok to shorten "have" when it's the main verb - what do you say? (for both AmE and BrE if answers differ)

I only encountered it in informal BrE writing and one can expect grammatical inaccuracies there, so hardly a reference. Not a reliable one anyway. There would be one exception perhaps, Episode 1, Season 1 of Star Trek: The Next Generation, at one point, captain Picard says: "We've a long voyage ahead of us", it is a very casual statement to a crewmate, not an order and no need to sound official so again it doesn't serve as much of a reference then

Is it correct and if yes, does it then betray the highly informal nature of the statement then?

Of course contractions are informal to begin with yet, it just feels weird and sounds "wrong" for lack of a better term, I guess I'm looking for confirmation. I can't remember anyone ever really use it in spoken language. Even more so when the sentence is about posession ("You've a room to let?").

Any help in shedding some light on this would be appreciated, thanks,
z.

Contraction of 'have'/'has'

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