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Happy Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

Confuse personal pronouns

I have read many grammar books regarding about this, and is still confuse about it. can you kindly assist me for the following:

Who did it ? answer given by the grammar book is Not I , (how come) is Not me?.

It is I telling you to go out (this i can understand why they use i instead of me) but following one i don't understand:
It's them i spoke to (Not they) -how come (above is it is i , why this one cannot use they)
since if we take away the it's (it make no sense if we say them i spoke to ) do u agree with me.

Let you and me go out (Not i) (i always thought it is supposed to be i because i read a book saying we must follow the subject ) if the subject is you then use i .
How come another eg is :
Let her and him do the work (Not she and he) ?.

All the above answer i got it from a grammar book written by Milon Nandy.


*** clause,

if i were a millionaire, i would buy u a car, (how come I were instead of i was)
if he were a millionaire, he would buy a car (how come he were instead of he was)



thank you very much for your kind assistance.

  

Top answer

Hi Happy, This area is a very contentious one, so it is not surprising that you find different pronouncements within and between grammar books. ' As such, it is formally correct, but 'Not me' is common and acceptable in spoken English. ' In the first of these two sentences, 'I' again stands in subject apposition to 'who'-- '(who is) telling'-- while in the second sentence 'them' stands in object apposition to 'whom'-- '(whom) I spoke to' ['I spoke to them'].

  • Hi Happy, This area is a very contentious one, so it is not surprising that you find different pronouncements within and between grammar books.
  • ' As such, it is formally correct, but 'Not me' is common and acceptable in spoken English.
  • ' In the first of these two sentences, 'I' again stands in subject apposition to 'who'-- '(who is) telling'-- while in the second sentence 'them' stands in object apposition to 'whom'-- '(whom) I spoke to' ['I spoke to them'].
  • In informal English, however, 'It's me telling you to go out' is common and acceptable.
  • ' Now it is obvious that 'you, me, her and him' are objects of the main verb.
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8 Answers
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Hi Happy,

This area is a very contentious one, so it is not surprising that you find different pronouncements within and between grammar books. Here is my opinion on the examples you present:

(1) 'Who did it ?' Not I.'

The pronoun stands in parallel to the subject 'who', and is a shortened form of 'I didn't do it.' As such, it is formally correct, but 'Not me' is c
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In addition to Mister Micawber's seasoned and excellent advice, here are a couple of quick tips and cool tricks:

When you're not sure which pronoun to use there are two things you can do.

1) Replace the pronoun with a word that makes sense to you, like this,

Question: Who did it? => I did it? She did it? He did it? They did? and so on.


2) Change
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thank you so much for your kind assistance and your patience for explaining everything to me in such a details.I GET A CLEARER PICTURE NOW.
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THANK YOU SO MUCH FOR YOUR KIND AND WONDERFUL ADVICE , IT REALLY HELP ME ALOT.
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In that case, what are we to say to J. Alfred Prufrock:

'Let us go then, you and I,
When the evening is spread out against the sky
Like a patient etherised upon a table...'

MrP
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We say to Mr. Eliot, 'you have poetic license, sir, to use language to create your moods and characters':

'. . . Am an attendant lord, one that will do
To swell a progress. . .
Deferential, glad to be of use,
Politic, cautious, and meticulous;
Full of high sentence, but a bit obtuse. . .'

Is not J. Alfred the type of white-flannel trousered gentleman who wo
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Poetic license, naw. It's just not Modern English that's all. 'you and I' functions as a restatement:

Let us go then, you and I [shall go],
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I would say that this was part of Eliot's satire.

It's not the only solecism Prufrock commits.

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