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Jack112 Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

Conditionals

Are these correct? If they are incorrect, how could I correct them? What do they mean?

1. We would have been done shopping by now if that jacket wasn't so expensive.
2. We would have been done shopping by now if that jacket hadn't been so expensive.
  

Top answer

The second sentence has the correct sequence of tenses. Both are attempting to say the same thing. I don't know what they mean.

  • The second sentence has the correct sequence of tenses.
  • Both are attempting to say the same thing.
  • I don't know what they mean.
  • I don't see the connection between an expensive jacket and the time required to finish shopping.
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23 Answers
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The second sentence has the correct sequence of tenses.
Both are attempting to say the same thing.
I don't know what they mean. I don't see the connection between an expensive jacket and the time required to finish shopping.
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So both of them are correct? What is the point of using the first one and vice versa?

What about these ones? Are they correct? What do they mean?
1. I would have bought that jacket if it wasn't so expensive.
2. I would have bought that jacket if it hadn't been so expensive.

3. I would buy that jacket if it wasn't so expensive.
4. I would buy
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The correct forms are:

... would ... if ... weren't ...
... would have ... if ... hadn't been ...

So only 2 is the only strictly correct one. The others are mistakes. However, 1 and 3 are not extremely serious mistakes. People do say such things, and they are understood. (For test taking purposes, I don't recommend imitating even the most minor mistakes of native spea
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The second sentence is the correct form, since the perfect tenses are applicable when an indefinite time is intended, although let me say, I've often heard the first from the mouth of many native speakers. I'm more concerned with the first clause:

"We'd have been done shopping..."

This is, certainly, quite improper, as such construction is not acceptable, since:

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Are these correct? If they are incorrect, how could I correct them? What do they mean?

1. We would have been done shopping by now if that jacket wasn't so expensive.
2. We would have been done shopping by now if that jacket hadn't been so expensive.

>>>>>>>>>>>>

Yes, they are both correct. In 1, two friends are standing looki
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NC: I'm more concerned with the first clause:

"We'd have been done shopping..."

This is, certainly, quite improper, as such construction is not acceptable, since:


"We'd have been done..."

Is a passive statement,

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

To my mind, this isn't a passive construction, NC. It's a
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Is it correct to say:

we would have BEEN done shopping?

It's a passive statement. I think 'we would have done shopping' is better and the auxiliary BEEN is unacceptable.

Dear Califjim,

You, too, said that the passive sentence is correct. Can you plz explain?
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Bubu,

Sorry, but I did not use the word "passive" even once in this thread. You may be confusing me with another poster.

In any case, the subject was "Conditionals", so considerations of voice weren't part of the original post. My comments were restricted to the sequence of tenses.

But, to switch gears and speak of voice, "we would have been done" is no more passiv
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How come 'was' is not 'is'? What does it mean with 'was' and what does it mean with 'is'?
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"was" particularizes the statement. "is" makes it general.

If a knife was used (earlier in this particular procedure), then ... will ...
If a knife is used (i.e., whenever a knife is used), then ... will ...

You found a rather unusual and interesting example there!

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