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Navitasan Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Comma question

1) For him to be there is good.
2) For him, to be there is good.

I think '2' unambiguously means:
His being there is good for him.

'1' is ambiguous.
It might have that meaning and it might also mean his being there is good for us or good per se.

Is that correct?

Gratefully,
Navi.
  

Top answer

Navi, I agree with what you say. #1 is indeed ambiguous. Reading it, I would think to myself, "good for whom"?

  • Navi, I agree with what you say.
  • #1 is indeed ambiguous.
  • Reading it, I would think to myself, "good for whom"?
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1 Answers
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Navi,
I agree with what you say. #1 is indeed ambiguous. Reading it, I would think to myself, "good for whom"?

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