I'm one of those old prescriptivists who says that when you have two independent clauses joined by a conjunction, you have a comma at the end of the first one. I would say it's required.
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Grammar GeekI'm one of those old prescriptivists who says that when you have two independent clauses joined by a conjunction, you have a comma at the end of the first one. I would say it's required.
I needed the response from a prescriptivist.
Many thanks.