I'd like to ask about causative verbs, specifically as to whether or not the verb in the example sentence below is used as a causative verb.
(1) He waved bodyguards aside. I don't know but the sentence seems to have the same frame or structure as, for example,
(2) He let me in.
As far as I know, the verb 'let' in (2) is used as a causative verb. In fact, it is one of a few I know as an example of causative verbs. So my question is, do you think the 'wave' in (1) is used as a causative verb?
Thanks.
Top answer
I would say so. It follows the pattern of causative verbs.
— AlpheccaStars
I would say so.
It follows the pattern of causative verbs.
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Oh, thanks again AlpheccaStars. I'm not seeking a strict, proper grammar explanation for this, I just wanted to know if the idea perceived(wave as a causative meaning) was true. That's good enough for me