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Cho7712 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

causative get

I just found some abstruse explnation about causative 'get' in the CGEL.
[quote: 1236page]
[41]i.He got a specialist to examine his son.
ii.He got his son to be examined by a specialist.
iii.He got his son examined by a specialist.
...BUT iii is not an alternative of ii: get takes a raised object in the past-participial construction (which has no active counterpart.)

Until encounterting this informaton, I've known that the first example can be changed into [iii] retaining the same meaning.
Based on the information in the book, what do you think is the difference in meaning between the first example sentence and [iii]?
  

Top answer

(ii) Sounds very odd. I'd call it wrong. (i) Puts the emphasis on 'a specialist'.

  • (ii) Sounds very odd.
  • I'd call it wrong.
  • (i) Puts the emphasis on 'a specialist'.
  • eg His family doctor could not help, so he got a specialist to examine his son.
  • (iii) Puts the emphasis on 'his son'.
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6 Answers
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(ii) Sounds very odd. I'd call it wrong.

(i) Puts the emphasis on 'a specialist'.
eg His family doctor could not help, so he got a specialist to examine his son.

(iii) Puts the emphasis on 'his son'.
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Clive(ii) Sounds very odd. I'd call it wrong.
It sounds wrong to me too.
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Thank you all for your answers.
Now I know the difference between 1 and iii.
However, I don't understand why (ii) is grammatically wrong. (ii) seems to be well-constructed.
Can I know the reason why (ii) is ruled out?
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cho7712Thank you all for your answers.Now I know the difference between 1 and iii. However, I don't understand why (ii) is grammatically wrong. (ii) seems to be well-constructed. Can I know the reason why (ii) is ruled out?
There is a mismatch between "He got his son to ...", which means that he caused his son to perform some action, and "... to be examined",
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Thank you for your clear explanation!
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cho7712Thank you all for your answers.Now I know the difference between 1 and iii. However, I don't understand why (ii) is grammatically wrong. (ii) seems to be well-constructed. Can I know the reason why (ii) is ruled out?
There is a mismatch between "He got his son to ...", which means that he caused his son to perform some action, and "... to be

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