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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Can we used an adjectives after a noun without a verb to be?
For example:
-The map was intended to show areas prone to risk like floods, landslides, drought and quakes.
Here, I learned that the word 'prone' is an adjective so it looks kinda weird to me without a verb-to-be preceding the word 'prone'
I've tried searching for the rule behind it and found 2 possible answers:
1)It's a reduced relative clause
2)It's a middle age english style of writing
What actually is it ? Can you please explain it to me and give some examples? Thank you so much.
-The map was intended to show areas prone to risk like floods, landslides, drought and quakes.
Here, I learned that the word 'prone' is an adjective so it looks kinda weird to me without a verb-to-be preceding the word 'prone'
I've tried searching for the rule behind it and found 2 possible answers:
1)It's a reduced relative clause
2)It's a middle age english style of writing
What actually is it ? Can you please explain it to me and give some examples? Thank you so much.
Top answer
I can't speak for the Middle English concept, but it is, indeed, a reduced relative clause ("that are" eliminated).
- I can't speak for the Middle English concept, but it is, indeed, a reduced relative clause ("that are" eliminated).
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2 Answers
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I can't speak for the Middle English concept, but it is, indeed, a reduced relative clause ("that are" eliminated).
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The map was intended to show areas prone to risk like floods, landslides, drought and quakes.
I see that as an adjective phrase. AdjPs occurring postpositively (after the head of the noun phrase) usually contain their own following dependents:
children keen on sport (but not *children keen)
a report full of errors (but
I see that as an adjective phrase. AdjPs occurring postpositively (after the head of the noun phrase) usually contain their own following dependents:
children keen on sport (but not *children keen)
a report full of errors (but
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