Can we use "of us" only when "us" is specified?
For most of us, financial success does not mean getting rich quick or achieving vast amounts of wealth. (excerpted from a book)
I often come across "most of us" used in books even though "us" is not specified.
As far as I know, we can use "all of us, most of all, many of us" only when "us" is specified, which is also the rule I've already learnt from a grammar book.
But how come is it possible to use "most of us" even though there's no clue specifying who are "us" in books or on a lot of videos?
Is the reason why it's possible to use "most of "us" even though "us" is not specified that authors tend to think of "us" as their specified readers who are supposed to be reading their books?
I haven't had any doubt about this until now, but it's gotten me curious suddenly.
Top answer
There is no difference between "most of us", "many of us" and "all of us" in this respect. If the context does not specify who "us" refers to, then it is understood to mean "people in general", notionally including the writer and the readers. "most of all" is a different phrase altogether.
- There is no difference between "most of us", "many of us" and "all of us" in this respect.
- If the context does not specify who "us" refers to, then it is understood to mean "people in general", notionally including the writer and the readers.
- "most of all" is a different phrase altogether.
- I'm not sure if you meant to type that.
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There is no difference between "most of us", "many of us" and "all of us" in this respect. If the context does not specify who "us" refers to, then it is understood to mean "people in general", notionally including the writer and the readers.
"most of all" is a different phrase altogether. I'm not sure if you meant to type that.
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