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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

"Can I get one" vs "Can I have one" : when buying a lunch.

I always get confused when I am buying a lunch.
Let's say I am in a food court, pointing at the piece of pizza and asking:

"Can I get this piece please"
OR
"Can I have this piece please"

Which one is correct in the situation described above? What is the differences in the meaning?

I would really appreciate the answer - that question has been bothering me for a long time.

Thank you.
  

Top answer

In British English, "have" is more usual and is, in my opinion, preferable. To me, "get" feels unrefined and slightly alien. I don't detect any difference in meaning.

— Mr Wordy

  • In British English, "have" is more usual and is, in my opinion, preferable.
  • To me, "get" feels unrefined and slightly alien.
  • I don't detect any difference in meaning.
  • Hopefully an AmE speaker will come along to give the AmE point of view.
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4 Answers
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In British English, "have" is more usual and is, in my opinion, preferable. To me, "get" feels unrefined and slightly alien. I don't detect any difference in meaning.

Hopefully an AmE speaker will come along to give the AmE point of view.
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Mr WordyIn British English, "have" is more usual and is, in my opinion, preferable. To me, "get" feels unrefined and slightly alien. I don't detect any difference in meaning. Hopefully an AmE speaker will come along to give the AmE point of view.
This American feels that "have" is a little more polite.

Some would insist on "may" instead of "can".
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thanks guys, I would stick to "Can I have this * please" or "May I have this * please" option. I am in Australia, so the BrE version is the best for me.
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Also, "could" is more polite than "can."

Could I have this one, please?
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