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Stenka25 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Can “for a person” be a subject?


In the underlined part, in the paragraph below, “for a person” seems be the subject of “must be either negative or zero.”


But to be a subject, “for a person” looks a bit odd. To remove “for” seems appropriate.


Am I right?



It is possible that someone who is content with the amount of money he has might also be content with an even larger amount of money. Since having enough money does not mean being at a limit beyond which more money would necessarily be undesirable, it would be a mistake to assume that for a personwho already has enough the marginal utility of money must be either negative or zero. Although this person is, by hypothesis, not distressed about his life in virtue of any lack of things which more money would enable him to obtain, nonetheless it remains possible that he would enjoy having some of those things.
  

Top answer

” No, the subject of this is 'the marginal utilty of money'. . i t would be a mistake to assume that [ for a person who already has enough ] the marginal utility of money must be either negative or zero .

  • ” No, the subject of this is 'the marginal utilty of money'.
  • .
  • i t would be a mistake to assume that [ for a person who already has enough ] the marginal utility of money must be either negative or zero .
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2 Answers
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Hi,

In the underlined part, in the paragraph below, “for a person” seems be the subject of “must be either negative or zero.”

No, the subject of this is 'the marginal utilty of money'.

. . . it would be a mistake to assume that [
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Sorry, Subject of the sentence is "the marginal utility."

Sorry to trouble you. Thanks, anyway.

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