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Then again, if the first and second (and subsequent) languages relate to different areas of the brain, there will presumably always be measurable physiological differences in the use of L1 and L2.Do you believe this?
EnglishuserHi Mr Pedantic,If the condition is met, yes.
You wrote:Then again, if the first and second (and subsequent) languages relate to different areas of the brain, there will presumably always be measurable physiological differences in the use of L1 and L2.Do you believe this?
Englishuser
EnglishuserHello EU
Hi MrPedantic,
Have you investigated this yourself? Or what makes you believe that it is so relevant in which part of your brain your language skills in a particular language are stored, so to speak?
Englishuser