Hello
According to the English grammar rules, we use "by*specific time*past perfect with "one-off action"verbs. But why do we have an opposite construction "by*specific time*past perfect with a continuous action verb "lived", but it is still corrext, though we have the verb "lived" which is a continuous action verb ?as follows:
1. By the time John reached the age of 18, he had already lived in several different countries.
2. Bey the time John had reached the age of 18, he had already lived in several different countries.
But it is incorrect in the following sentence:
3. By 2000, he had lived in New York.
Regards
JA
By 2000, he had lived in New York. This is not incorrect grammar. It means he lived there sometime before 2000.
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By 2000, he had lived in New York.
This is not incorrect grammar. It means he lived there sometime before 2000. But it makes it sound like some kind of achievement.
Compare this example, where the achievement is more apparent,.
By 2000, he had won an Olympic Gold medal.