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HungryHippo1234 Posted 6 years ago
Grammar

By the time vs Before

What's the difference between "by the time" and "before"?

Let's set some examples:

"By the time I got home, he had died."

This translates to "At the time that or Before the time that I got home, he died." This means that the person either died right at the time the person got home, or some time before. However, I asked a few other people, and they say that it just means that the person died BEFORE he got home, and can not be "at", just "before"... why? I'm not sure what to think about the definition, so if anyone could provide clearance, that would be awesome...


By the time I got back to school, the bell had rung.

This translates to "at the time or before the time that I got back to school, the bell had rung." However, it is only understood to be "before the time", and people disregard the "at". Why?

  

Top answer

it is only understood to be "before the time", and people disregard the "at". Why? It's purely convention.

  • it is only understood to be "before the time", and people disregard the "at".
  • Why?
  • It's purely convention.
  • That is, it's customary to interpret "by the time" that way.
  • It's normal (are useful) to think of it as a race between two processes, actions, or events.
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2 Answers
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it is only understood to be "before the time", and people disregard the "at". Why?

It's purely convention. That is, it's customary to interpret "by the time" that way. It's normal (are useful) to think of it as a race between two processes, actions, or events. Only one can win the race. There can't be a tied score.

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By the time I got back to school, the bell had rung.

This translates to "at the time or before the time that I got back to school, the bell had rung." Then the translation process is incorrect.

Clive

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