0
Sb70012 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
By the time the new edition is published, the writer ............... thousands of the first edition.
By the time the new edition is published, the writer ............... thousands of the first edition.
a)would have sold
b)sells
c)will have sold (Answer Key)
d)has sold
Source: school exam
Hello,
Longman Thesaurus says:
I have asked this question in WR forum too but I'm still confused: http://forum.wordreference.com/threads/by-the-time-the-new-edition-is-published-the-writer-thousands-of-the-first-edition.3218775/
a)would have sold
b)sells
c)will have sold (Answer Key)
d)has sold
Source: school exam
Hello,
Longman Thesaurus says:
So, according to the red word in the definition of the "by the time" can't we say that option D (has sold) is also correct? We have "has" in option D too.
by the time
used in order to say that one thing has or will have already happened when something else happens:
• By the time a child is five, he will have watched hundreds of hours of television.
I have asked this question in WR forum too but I'm still confused: http://forum.wordreference.com/threads/by-the-time-the-new-edition-is-published-the-writer-thousands-of-the-first-edition.3218775/
Top answer
sb70012 So, according to the red word in the definition of the "by the time" can't we say that option D (has sold) is also correct? We have "has" in option D too. No.
- sb70012 So, according to the red word in the definition of the "by the time" can't we say that option D (has sold) is also correct?
- We have "has" in option D too.
- No.
- The definition itself does not use 'by the time' in its structure.
- Look at the example sentence: By the time a child is five, he will have watched hundreds of hours of television.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
7 Answers
0
sb70012So, according to the red word in the definition of the "by the time" can't we say that option D (has sold) is also correct? We have "has" in option D too.No. The definition itself does not use 'by the time' in its structure. Look at the example sentence:
By the time a child is five, he will have watched hundreds of hours of televis
00
Thank you. One more question:
How should I change the sentence so that I can use "has sold"?
Thank you.
How should I change the sentence so that I can use "has sold"?
Thank you.
00
0
fivejedjonIn the way Oddmania suggested in the other forum.I couldn't understand his explanation very well.
I wish one would clarify it again to me that how should I change the sentence so that "has sold" can work.
Thank you.
00
After deeply reading Oddmania's answer for several times, I understood it now that why "has sold" doesn't work. Because "is published" is not a habit in my question.
Thank you everybody. And sorry if I sometimes understand late.
Thank you everybody. And sorry if I sometimes understand late.
00
One more question:
In thefreedictionary forum, one native English speaker told me I can also say:
By the time the new edition was published, the writer had sold thousands of the first edition.
And In WR forum one other native English speaker told me I can also
In thefreedictionary forum, one native English speaker told me I can also say:
By the time the new edition was published, the writer had sold thousands of the first edition.
And In WR forum one other native English speaker told me I can also
00
Related Questions