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Nsfs1 Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

By the time

Hi,

1.'By the time he had finished his homework, it was time for bed.'
2.'By the time he finished his homework, it had been time for bed.'

What is the difference between the above two sentences?
Is it normal to use 'past perfect' after 'by the time' in the subordinate clause?
I have read many posts about using 'by the time',but I need more detailed information on the past perfect after 'by the time',please.

Thank you.
  

Top answer

#2 is not a possible construction. #1 does not require past perfect (nor does 'by the time' sit well within it): When he finished his homework, it was time for bed. Both actions occur at the same time.

— Mister Micawber

  • #2 is not a possible construction.
  • #1 does not require past perfect (nor does 'by the time' sit well within it): When he finished his homework, it was time for bed.
  • Both actions occur at the same time.
  • By the time I got up, she had already left.
  • -- The past perfect event occurred before the 'by the time' event.
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3 Answers
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#2 is not a possible construction. #1 does not require past perfect (nor does 'by the time' sit well within it): When he finished his homework, it was time for bed. Both actions occur at the same time.

By the time I got up, she had already left. -- The past perfect event occurred before the 'by the time' event.
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Mister Micawber#2 is not a possible construction. #1 does not require past perfect (nor does 'by the time' sit well within it): When he finished his homework, it was time for bed. Both actions occur at the same time.By the time I got up, she had already left. -- The past perfect event occurred before the 'by the time' event.
Hi,

The first sentence is
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The basic problem with #1 (in spite of your exercise book!) is that 'By the time...it was time' can only mean 'at the same time'.
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