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Fattyshank Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

By the time

Hello.

What's the difference?

By time you come to me I'll be already dead.

By time you come to me I'll have been already dead.

I guess the first one is incorrect. Or not?

Thanks.
  

Top answer

Both are wrong. Say: By the time you come to me, I'll be dead. CB

— Cool Breeze

  • Both are wrong.
  • Say: By the time you come to me, I'll be dead.
  • CB
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19 Answers
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Both are wrong. Say: By the time you come to me, I'll be dead.

CB
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Hi,

I'd remove 'to me', since I don't think you can come to me if I am dead. I'm not there anymore.

What's the difference?

By time you come-- to me-- I'll be already dead. This is fine, although 'already' is usually placed before 'be'.

By time you
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And what about "I'll have been already dead"? Why's it wrong? Thank you.
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Then I have another question: when should we use "I will do smth." and "I will have done smth." after by the time? Thank you too.
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Seems to me both are okay, the first is simple future progressive and the second future perfect progressive. Depends on which tense you wish to use.

Cheers
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Hi,

Then I have another question: when should we use "I will do smth." and "I will have done smth." after by the time? Thank you too.

First, let me ask you a question, to ensure you understand the meaning of the two tenses.

Please consider these two examples.
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I mean, isn't there much difference if I use simple future instead of future perfect progressive and vice versa? Thanks.
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Clive #1 At 6 pm tomorrow, Mary will cook dinner.
#2 At 6 pm tomorrow, Mary will have cooked dinner.
The first one indicates that Marry will cook dinner but won't have it done just at 6 pm as in the second example. Or Am I wrong?
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oops, the second is future perfect passive, not progressive.

I can not edit the post anymore, sorry.
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Hi,

You might want to mention the forum name of the person you are replying to, as there is more than one conversation going on.
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