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Yukari031790 Posted 13 years ago
Speech & Pronunciation

British or American Accent?

What is the correct way of saying "Have to..."

1. Have to = /HaV to/
2. Have to = /Haf to/

May I know which is British and American accent between the two..badly needed anyone knows this type of pronunciation problem I have? Can anyone recommend a good book to study with or link? Thank you for your reply
  

Top answer

I think the correct form should really be with the /v/ sound, but perhaps, as we speak, we involuntarily use the /f/ sound. I think that would be incorrect. There are many differences between British and American accent.

— MrGuedes

  • I think the correct form should really be with the /v/ sound, but perhaps, as we speak, we involuntarily use the /f/ sound.
  • I think that would be incorrect.
  • There are many differences between British and American accent.
  • Lo some: Syllables with R in the end, or after the vowel sound .
  • For example: ca r , a r chive , wo r ld .
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16 Answers
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I think the correct form should really be with the /v/ sound, but perhaps, as we speak, we involuntarily use the /f/ sound. I think that would be incorrect.

There are many differences between British and American accent. Lo some:
  • Syllables with R in the end, or after the vowel sound. For example: car, archive, world. British do
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In AmE, we say 2. Have to = /Haf to/
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Wow! Thank you so much for your reply....because a student of mine told me that the proper way of speaking have to is haf to because a native american told him so...and he got confused because I told him that we usually pronounce it as haVe to...
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Those sounds are very similar. In fact, the only difference is that /v/ is voiced and /f/ is voiceless. Although a V is there is the word, it's possible that that sound in "have to" is influenced by the next sound of the word "to", which is a voiceless /t/ sound. Maybe that voicelessness influences the previous sound, which should be voiced, causing it to be also voiceless.

What about the
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Have is pronounced /hæv/.

Interesting theory, but when "have" is used as a helper verb (as in perfect tense), it doesn't change pronunciation. I think you are partially right, that it is more natural to have unvoiced link to unvoiced. "Have" and "have to" are too slightly different, and so commonly used, that the pronunciation changed to make more of a noticeable difference.
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I see thank you so much for responding Emotion: smile it's a big help. I think I agree that it changes when it's combined to...yes we say haev whe
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Thank you for sharing your opinion Emotion: smile
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Vorpar(...) when "have" is used as a helper verb (as in perfect tense), it doesn't change pronunciation.
My theory justifies that the sound /v/ in "have" passes to /f/ when the first sound of the next word is voiceless. For example, according to this theory, it shouldn't change in any of the following examples:

I have done. I have broken. I have zippe
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MrGuedesBut now consider examples like these:I have tried. I have purchased. I have sought. I have killed. I have fought.Unlike the previous ones, these sounds (/t/, /p/, /s/, /k/, /f/) are all voiceless, so it's possible that they will influence the previous voiced sound /v/, by causing it to be also voiceless (/f/).
No, not for this native speaker. All of th
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Mister MicawberNo, not for this native speaker. All of these are pronouncd /v/:I have done. I have broken. I have zipped. I have guessed. I have vanished. I have tried. I have purchased. I have sought. I have killed. I have fought.
What about "have to", Micawber? /hæv tu?/ or /hæf tu?/?
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