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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

BGC

In the KJV I find no instances of XX (nominative) was given. i.e. not 'he was given' but 'unto him was given'. Did the 'XX was given' form come into use only later or is there a different explanation?
  

Top answer

", was well-established in the English language before the King James was written. "

— Anonymous

  • ", was well-established in the English language before the King James was written.
  • "
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1 Answers
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The construction, "he was given...", was well-established in the English language before the King James was written. There are numerous instances of this construction in the King James, for example, Esther 2:13: "...whatsoever she desired was given her to go with her out of the house of the women unto the king's house."
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