0
Wowenglish Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
Be/have been
StartFragment>
I wonder if there is any difference between "1" and "2".
1. There is an accident.
2. There has been an accident.
I wonder if there is any difference between "1" and "2".
1. There is an accident.
2. There has been an accident.
Top answer
Only the second is natural. The first is possible as part of a sentence but not as a standalone/complete sentence. What to do when there is an accident ?
- Only the second is natural.
- The first is possible as part of a sentence but not as a standalone/complete sentence.
- What to do when there is an accident ?
- The first will most likely be used when generalizing about accidents rather than talking about a specific accident.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
1 Answers
0
Only the second is natural. The first is possible as part of a sentence but not as a standalone/complete sentence.
What to do when there is an accident?
The first will most likely be used when generalizing about accidents rather than talking about a specific accident.
What to do when there is an accident?
The first will most likely be used when generalizing about accidents rather than talking about a specific accident.
0
Related Questions