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01cite10Grammar Geek12cite11b10What if you tire of..10.12b12br10Hi GG,02br
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10Yes, I'd say that they have the same meaning.12br
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01cite10Kooyeen12cite10My dictionary mentions that usage, so it must be acceptable (at least to someone, in theory).12blockquote10It's more than just theoretical. 05002br
01cite10Grammar Geek12cite10Yes, I'm serious. 12br
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10No, it's not the same. It's the same as "I am tired OF" or more accurately, "I am becoming tired of..."12br
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10To tire, as in, to become bored with, no longer interetested in.12br
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10I am becoming tired of his con
01cite10Goodman12cite10By the way, does this rule apply to all the stative form of the verbs? 12blockquote10 No! See my examples above. You have applied the rule faithfully, but to verbs that don't allow that treatment. There really aren't that many verbs that follow this pattern. And even those that do may seem
01cite10Goodman12cite10If this is true then what you just validated was " I tire" bare the same meaning as " I am tired". This sounds utterly odd to my ears.12img10Goodman, 01i00to be tired02i00 is a state whereas 012blockquote