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Exp Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

be verb as a complement in passive causative?

Can you have a be verb as a complement (bare infinitive complement) in front of the past particle in passive causative structure (subject + causative verb + object + past participle)?

Ex. Have him dismissed. ? Have him be dismissed.

http://www.library.yale.edu/judaica/site/exhibits/venicehaggadah/VeniceHaggadah.html
[T]he Israelites refrained from conjugal relations so as not to bring children into the world only to have them be drowned by Pharaoh's men.

http://election.princeton.edu/wp-content/uploads/2012/09/for.2010.8.3.1394.pdf
[A] party had to have the requisite percent of seats in one “trial” to have them be declared in control of the redistricting process for that chamber.

http://edition.cnn.com/TRANSCRIPTS/0212/16/i_ins.01.html
One technique is to not have them be interrogated by the CIA or the U.S. military, but to let the foreign intelligence service in, say, Egypt, conduct the interrogation.

http://www.949fathers.com/?start=8
It wouldn't be right for either spouse to devote themselves to raising the children of the union only to have them be divorced by the other spouse and not receive compensation.
  
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