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Hhtt Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Be v. am/is/are

I would like to ask you about transition among "be" and "am/is/are". Discussing it via an example, why it is be but not "am/is/are" in this sentence: "In order that such lines be parallel, they must have the same slope but different y-intercepts." Why cannot we say "In order that such lines are parallel, they must have the same slope but different y-intercepts."


Source: Algebra and Trigonometry by Keedy/Bittenger


Thank you.

  

Top answer

" It is the subjunctive mood. com/grammar/subjunctive-mood/ . It gives a list of cases when we use subjunctive mood, and then says: If you’re confused by the subjunctive mood, don’t worry too much.

— AlpheccaStars

  • " It is the subjunctive mood.
  • com/grammar/subjunctive-mood/ .
  • It gives a list of cases when we use subjunctive mood, and then says: If you’re confused by the subjunctive mood, don’t worry too much.
  • As with all grammar and usage matters, the rules for subjunctive mood are based on centuries of convention.
  • There’s no deeper reason; it just is what it is.
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3 Answers
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hhtt "In order that such lines be parallel, they must have the same slope but different y-intercepts."

It is the subjunctive mood. The present tense subjunctive mood of the verb "be."

It is the use described as a statement of necessity on this

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It may be just "what it is" but the subjunctive "be" is more accepted by grammarians.

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hhttIn order that such lines be parallel, they must have the same slope but different y-intercepts.

This is the more academic and formal form of 'in order'. In this example it takes the mandative construction (subjunctive). In other words, in this construction the main verb in the clause is the same as the infinitive without 'to', which is also the

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