For all practical purposes, there is no real difference between the two. The first sentence, however, might be considered a more highfalutin way of saying it.
Thank you all. Anonymous' answer is the one I wanted to.("Were to" is used in a highfalutin way... that's good to know..I didn't know that) By the way, as you(Avangi) said "the difference in grammar", is there any difference between the two?