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Aramahosi Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Be bent to do something

Is "be bent to do something" equal to"be bent on doing something"? Thanks in advance!
  

Top answer

No, the first is not a possible formation.

  • No, the first is not a possible formation.
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4 Answers
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No, the first is not a possible formation.
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aramahosiIs "be bent to do something" equal to"be bent on doing something"? Thanks in advance!
The only formulation I could come up with is:

The wire was bent to be used as a fish hook.
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I've found the usage here: http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,938562,00.html

"My mind is bent to tell of bodies
changed into new forms."

This might be archaic way to write...
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Not only is that poetry, it is translated poetry! Poetry generally gets a pass on obeying grammar for artistic reasons, and translators will frequently strain grammar in order to provide more accurate (however the translator defines accurate) translations.

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