Hi, Please help me understand the phrase"Be as likely to + verb" in the following: A common misconception is that none must always be treated as singular. The customary support for this view is that none necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality). As noted in The American Heritage Dictionary : "the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward.
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