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Tuongvan Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

be as likely +v

Dear teachers,
Please help me understand the phrase"Be as likely to + verb" in the following:

A common misconception is that none must always be treated as singular. The customary support for this view is that none necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality). As noted in The American Heritage Dictionary: "the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward.

Thank you in advance
  

Top answer

Hi, Please help me understand the phrase"Be as likely to + verb" in the following: A common misconception is that none must always be treated as singular. The customary support for this view is that none necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality). As noted in The American Heritage Dictionary : "the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward.

  • Hi, Please help me understand the phrase"Be as likely to + verb" in the following: A common misconception is that none must always be treated as singular.
  • The customary support for this view is that none necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality).
  • As noted in The American Heritage Dictionary : "the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward.
  • Consider a much simpler example.
  • eg Mary may cook fish for dinner tonight, but she is just as likely to cook chicken.
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2 Answers
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Hi,
Please help me understand the phrase"Be as likely to + verb" in the following:


A common misconception is that none must always be treated as singular. The customary support for this view is that none necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality). As noted in The American Her
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Thank you Clive very much

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