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Kunsusuki Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Be able to?

Hi.
In an English website, 'be able to' was considered as an idiom verb and not a modal verb. What is the difference between the two? Thank you in advance.
  

Top answer

For a start, modals have no inflected forms for person and have no -ing or third (past participle) forms. The BE of be able to has such forms, as does the HAVE of have to. They are not modals.

— Fivejedjon

  • For a start, modals have no inflected forms for person and have no -ing or third (past participle) forms.
  • The BE of be able to has such forms, as does the HAVE of have to.
  • They are not modals.
  • The label 'idiom' verb is not a standard one.
  • Where did you see it?
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5 Answers
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For a start, modals have no inflected forms for person and have no -ing or third (past participle) forms. The BE of be able to has such forms, as does the HAVE of have to. They are not modals.

The label 'idiom' verb is not a standard one. Where did you see it?
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fivejedjonThe label 'idiom' verb is not a standard one.
Are they phrasal verbs?
fivejedjonWhere did you see it?
In a website.
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kunsusukiAre they phrasal verbs?
No.
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How can they be defined?
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They are sometimes referred to as quasi-modals or semi-modals
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