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Iamatree Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Backwards.... but wrong?

I was thinking.....

one can say:

My mother and I went to the store.

But can you say
I and my mother went to the store.

I mean I've never heard it before, but is it like, gramatically wrong? Or just like correct but 'sounds wrong' because no one says it?

Also:
I've heard people use 'I' at the end of a sentence when one would normally use 'me'. Is that wrong?

But you'll be as poor as me.
But you'll be as poor as I.

ty.
  

Top answer

The convention when naming one or more persons and oneself is to put oneself last. " Therefore, the pronoun is in the subjective rather than the objective form.

— Sam1947

  • The convention when naming one or more persons and oneself is to put oneself last.
  • " Therefore, the pronoun is in the subjective rather than the objective form.
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18 Answers
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The convention when naming one or more persons and oneself is to put oneself last. Therefore, one should say, "My mother and I went to the store."

In the second sentence, it should be I, because there is an implied verb, i.e., "But you'll be as poor as I AM." Therefore, the pronoun is in the subjective rather than the objective form.
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iamatreeI and my mother went to the store.
Me and my mother or My mother and me...but do remember that they are casual usages.
iamatreeBut you'll be as poor as me.
But you'll be as poor as I.
the first sentence is right, although it is considered casual.

the second should be " you'll be as poor as I am."
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iamatreeBut can you say
I and my mother went to the store.
It's true. Idiomatically, people don't say that and in fact, I have never heard that in my past 30 years living in the US.

For meaning of the sentence, the natural patterns would be:
I went to the store with my mother.

My mother and I went to the store.
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iamatreeI mean I've never heard it before, but ...
It's not grammatically wrong, but as a matter of courtesy, I or me goes last in a list like that.

CJ

Edit: as in "My mother and I went to the store" (as opposed to I and my mother)

or as in "Dad went with my mother and me. (as opposed to me and my mo
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Neither "me and my mother" nor "my mother and me" are correct, even in casual usage. The first person pronoun is part of the subject of the sentence (My mother and I are the actors in this event) so it must be I rather than me. You would not say, "Me went to the store," so it is equally incorrect to say, "My mother and me went to the store."

Unfortunately, one does hear this in spoken
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It is perfectly correct to write the second sentence without including "am" after I. Implied verbs are permissable in this type of sentence or in one such as, "No one knows better than I how hard you worked on this project."

There is the implied verb "do" after I (No one knows better than I do how....). Just be careful to use the subjective form of the pronoun in that type of sentence.
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CalifJimbut as a matter of courtesy, I or me goes last in a list like that.
I don't want to sound like I'm bothering you or trolling, but... can you prove it? [A]
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KooyeenCan you prove that native speakers of English really put "I" after anyone else as a matter of courtesy? In other words, can you prove in a convincing way that the reason why "I" comes last is that the speakers want to be polite?
No. I can't prove it. In fact, many speakers I know have no desire whatever to be polite, and those who wish to be insulting
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sam1947Neither "me and my mother" nor "my mother and me" are correct, even in casual usage.
I've heard this usage.
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My mother and I went to the store.

if we have 2 nouns in a subject and you are the one. In the case you will be the last noun.

Sami and I went home.

But you'll be as poor as me.

I is a subject nees a verb, so you cant say I alone in English. You can say I am.

A : I am a teacher.

B : Me, too. or I am, too.
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