0
Taka Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Availabe
Which is correct? Or are both correct?
Those toys weren't available to children during the war.
Those toys weren't available for children during the war.
Those toys weren't available to children during the war.
Those toys weren't available for children during the war.
Top answer
Surely the context would render any hair-splitting argument moot.
- Surely the context would render any hair-splitting argument moot.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
4 Answers
0
0
Both are possible, but there can be the slightest difference in nuance. The first might imply that these were toys in stores, to be purchased by the children's family. The second might imply that the toys were not in stores to be purchased by the children's family, for example, toys in a school or community center, to be used by children while playing there.
00
Taka, you asked me to comment. It seems to me that "not available to" means that something cannot be accessed or obtained by that person, while "not available for" means that the thing doesn't exist in a form suitable for that person. For example, "Fireworks should not be available to children" versus "This style of shoe is not available for children" (i.e. is not made in children's sizes). For th
00
Related Questions