auxiliary "have"

Question

can I say?"Have I to go?" or "Has she to come?" instead of "Do I have to go?'' or "Does she have to come ?"If you know, please tell me a name of a grammar book which says that both of the above forms are possible

Cool Breeze · Accepted Answer

There are cases where do/does/did must be used in questions with have. In these cases, have has a special meaning such as to eat, to drink, must etc.

Do you have to go now?
She didn't have to go there.
What time did you have breakfast?

In modern English, do/does/did is very often used with have even when it means to possess, especially in American English:

Do you have any money? = Have you any money?

CB

RandomGuy · Answer

AnonymousCan I say "Have I to go?" or "Has she to come?" instead of "Do I have to go?'' or "Does she have to come?"?

Yes. However, the ones without do sound rather old-fashioned and are more characteristic of BrE than AmE.

In its dynamic sense, have is a lexical verb for all speakers:

Did he have a swim?
(X) Had he a swim?

Anonymous · Answer

They might have been more familiar in 18th Century British English, but they certainly aren't now.

Anonymous · Answer

I live in the building design world, and the rules are very clear:

Shall is a command to a second person, e.g. "Contractor shall install a pipe in this location."

Will is a commitment to do something by a first person, e.g. "I (Engineer) will review the installation and comment in writing."

Is this true in today's normal English?

AlpheccaStars · Answer

"Shall" is common in contract law to indicate "obligation" or "mandatory."
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/shall

In traditional English, "shall" was the irregular form of "will" for first person singular and plural.
It has been largely replaced by "will" except as a very formal interrogative form of "let us" as in "Shall we dance?"

In your case, I would just use "will."

auxiliary "have"

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