"you have been awaken 100 yrs AHEAD of schedule"- this means that guy has been awaken 100 yrs before he was supposed to ....but then instead of "ahead" shudnt it be "before schedule"???
2)i wouldnt have drank, if u hadnt drank ( is this sentence right?)
3) are these sentences right... (i) for how long did u jog (ii) how long did u jog for IF BOTH THE SENTENCES ARE RIGHT CAN U TELL ME WHY? and just tellme how "for" is used in this kind of sentences
PAST SIMPLE AND PRESENT PERFECT i noticed that these both sound quite the same but still they r different ..can you tell me the difference
i havnt seen her since last year i didnt see her since last year
above, both the sentences sound((or is it sounds??)) to be coreect but the actual correct one is "havnt seen"...can you tell me why
Top answer
Hello Blitz 1. 'Ahead of schedule' is fine - it's the usual phrase. 'Before schedule' is used too, but it's much less common.
— MrPedantic
Hello Blitz 1.
'Ahead of schedule' is fine - it's the usual phrase.
'Before schedule' is used too, but it's much less common.
In newspapers and official reports you'd be much more likely to find 'ahead of schedule'.
'Awaken' > 'awoken'.
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1. 'Ahead of schedule' is fine - it's the usual phrase. 'Before schedule' is used too, but it's much less common. In newspapers and official reports you'd be much more likely to find 'ahead of schedule'. 'Awaken' > 'awoken'.
2. Almost right:
'I wouldn't have drunk, if you hadn't drunk.'
3. Both are right. 'For' here is a preposition, and mea
1. 'I'll go with you' and 'I'll come with you' are both correct. 'Come with' has a sense of accompanying someone who would be going somewhere anyway; 'go with' can be used without this implication.
2. 'I haven't met her in a long time' ('IALT') vs 'I haven't met her for a long time' ('FALT').
This is an interesting one. My first thought is to say that 'I
'I don't want to die - I'm not even married' is probably the right form here.
1. Here are a few examples of the Past Simple.
The past simple verb is in bold. It denotes a completed action in the past. It is 'simple' because it has one part (the part in bold), except in the negative:
PP I have+ridden my bike. He has+given me a present.
.....how come the first two sentences are correct and as well as the secnd two i rode my bike " i have been riding my bike"for a year now(is this sentence correct?) i have ridden my bike ( maybe if u add "just" in the middle of those two,
Yes, I should probably qualify what I said before: the PS is used in contexts where you don't want to imply a connection to the present; the PP, where you do.
So:
'Yesterday I rode my bike across the field' - PS. You only want to talk about yesterday.
'I've ridden my bike to work every day this week' - PP. It's still 'this week', so the action h